Question Should Wycombe Have Had a Player Sent Off

[londonblue]

This is a question for the referees out there.

Watch the highlights of our goal. The man on the post at the corner tries to palm the ball away, but fails. Now, there's no point in giving a penalty because a goal was scored, but should the player still have been red carded for handball?

(This isn't sour grapes by the way, more a question of what should have happened because I genuinely don't know.)

 

[Dazzaref]

No, because he hasn't denied an obvious goal scoring opportunity. I believe that there would be a case for him to be cautioned for a deliberate handball. (I haven't seen the clip so unsure if he actually touched the ball?)

 

[londonblue]

No, because he hasn't denied an obvious goal scoring opportunity. I believe that there would be a case for him to be cautioned for a deliberate handball. (I haven't seen the clip so unsure if he actually touched the ball?)

He definitely touched it. However, don't forget that for the offence of handball to be committed it has to be deliberate. Accidentally touching the ball with your hand isn't an offence. Therefore not all handballs have to lead to a caution.

I guess my point is that the player has made an attempt to deny a goal. Does the fact that he failed mean he doesn't get the same punishment that he would get had he succeeded?

 

[RobM]

I would think that "advantage" would have been given.

 

[dannypav]

Not sure how the rules are applied in this case , but just wondered whether people would prefer going 1-0 up after 63 mins and then playing on 11 v 11 , or getting a penalty and playing against 10 ????

 

[Mick]

Does the fact that he failed mean he doesn't get the same punishment that he would get had he succeeded?

Obviously.

Just as murder and attempted murder attract different punishments.

An officious referee could still show a yellow card if he felt the defender was making a serious attempt to cheat, but, thankfully, this happens rarely and is, in my opinion, totally unnecessary.

 

[Mick]

Advantage is applied, or not, based on the passage of play and not on the potential for benefitting from subsequent sanctions.

 

[1966 and all that]

He definitely touched it. However, don't forget that for the offence of handball to be committed it has to be deliberate. Accidentally touching the ball with your hand isn't an offence. Therefore not all handballs have to lead to a caution.

I guess my point is that the player has made an attempt to deny a goal. Does the fact that he failed mean he doesn't get the same punishment that he would get had he succeeded?

Regarding intent, if only referees (and supporters) said to themselves, 'did this player really intentionally make hand contact with the ball', I'm sure the number of penalties given for the offence would drop dramatically. If I had been the Arsenal player at the weekend, I'd have been incensed at the decision and yet he hardly protested which suggests even in the player's mindset as 'I touched the ball I'll accept my fate'. And I'm not even sure Suarez didn't con the referee when 'tripped' at the weekend. Rant over!